If your husband (and or spouse) has a credit card and you are not the primary but an agreed upon another user as a spouse then you essentially have NO credit rating and if you wanted an individual CC for yourself you would most likely be denied as you have no individual credit rating. Further as an example if the primary cc holder dies his/her spouse is responsible for the cc balance. Since at the risk of being labeled as sexist I would guess that most primary users are the husband therefore the wives have no individual credit rating and yet held responsible if they inherit the estate. Allegedly this is the case even if the spouse does the majority of the usage of the card. Am I wrong in thinking this is kind of wrong? Would appreciate it if someone straighten me out if my thinking is distorted.
