[kappy]

6 years ago, when I lived in a northeastern state, I leased a vehicle for a very reasonable down payment and reasonable monthly rates. By the time that the 3 year lease was nearing its end, I had moved to Florida. I could not find any local Florida dealership willing to lease me another vehicle at reasonable prices, primarily due to the “dealer fee”. I went back up north and got the same deal as my original lease and they titled everything in Florida.

Last month, when my leased vehicle was nearing the end of the lease, I again checked several local dealers. One of those dealers is new and advertised, “No Dealer Fee”. All of the local dealers deals were again much higher than I had negotiated up north. So much for no dealer fee dealers.

I was ready to go back up north to visit relatives and lease a new car when a friend told me about a dealer in the area who gave him a deal similar to what I had on the same basic car. I contacted the saleswoman at this dealership and without any hassle at all, I had my new 2018 car in 3 hours at the same price I had paid up north.

If this Florida dealership can make a profit without charging a dealer fee, (the same profit that the dealers up north make), why do the Florida dealerships have to make this extra profit called a “Dealer Fee”? If buyers in Florida are willing to accept these extra charges, there is no incentive for the Florida dealerships to eliminate them.

As a senior citizen, I have bought or leased many vehicles. This had to be the easiest car deal I have ever experienced. I am willing to share more details about my experience.