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Originally Posted by tanderse
I have kind of a follow-up question to this thread. Can a person merely pay the owed taxes (out of current income) based on the calculated RMD each year without actually selling the stock, bonds, 401k, IRA, etc.? It seems to me like such a hassle and expense to sell the required RMD amount and then put the balance back into an investment, probably the same investment.
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Quote:
Originally Posted by retiredguy123
You have to actually transfer the RMD funds out of the IRA. But, you may be able to move specific stocks and bonds from an IRA account into a non-IRA account, without actually selling them.
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Hi tanderse, and thank you, rg123 for your answer.
I have not done this, but it is something that interests me.
(I have said it before and I will say it again -- it is a good idea never to put yourself in the position of having to sell stock to pay taxes. Cash on the side can protect the investments, but here we have more to the story.)
Taxes on such a transfer would, of course, be on the face value of the shares on the date of transfer and not on just the gain.
It is necessary to understand all the moving parts in this one -- like cost basis -- but it can be a really good idea.
Anyway, I am linking here an article on the topic. The source is
Kiplinger. I like articles from
Kiplinger because I think they communicate well for those of us who just want to learn some things but we do not want to wade into esoteric territory.
I hope this link helps.
Boomer
Retirees, Shift Stock to Satisfy Your RMD