[ColdNoMore]

Originally Posted by golfing eagles

Of course you realize the previous owners probably set a sale price that included them recovering some or all of their bond. Look at it this way: Two identical homes right next to each other, let's say intrinsic worth of 300K each. One has a 30K bond, the other none. What do you think the sales price would be for each?

While intuitively it would seem that the sales price would take into account the balance of any bond, I don't recall ever seeing any 'comps' include the bond balance...when looking to buy 7 years ago.

In other words, both houses (given that they are essentially the same) would most likely be priced almost the same (primarily based on SF/# of bedrooms/garage size/Etc.), even though you're paying more overall...for the one with the bond balance.