Yes, the amenities are sold to the CDDs. A big chunk of your amenities fee goes to serving the debt from buying the amenities. Why do you think the "system/procedure that is used to determine the value could be called into question"? Do you have some reason to suspect something was not done equitably? I really done care for such speculations without some specific reason.
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Originally Posted by twoplanekid
I believe that the amenities (recreational facilities) have to be purchased by the CDDs from the Developer. The system/procedure that is used to determine that value could be called into question. Is it fair to everyone?
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