Quote:
Originally Posted by Maker
The example was two houses (of any age or style) are exactly equal in assessed value (and exemptions) are both taxed at the same rate per $1000
Exactly same property taxes. All the other words about ages, size, etc are irrelevant when assessed values are identical.
In the amenity fee thinking, one house would be taxed at a different amount.
But that would be unfair.
What is unclear about this?
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You are ignoring the details that result in the amenity fee being different.
To compare apples to apples you would have two homes purchased at exactly the same time. In that case, the amenity fee for the two homes would be exactly the same just as the exemptions and property tax.
If the amenity fee was different then the reason was the homes were purchased in different years. If the homes were purchased in different years then the exemptions would NOT be exactly the same and the property tax would NOT be the same.
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Why do people insist on making claims without looking them up first, do they really think no one will check? Proof by emphatic assertion rarely works.
Confirmation bias is real; I can find any number of articles that say so.
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