This seems so basic to me. Isn't a defendant subject to conviction on the CHARGES for which he is being tried? He was not charged with "Manslaughter"!
How can the judge, who is supposed to be a "referee", insert a "charge" leading to conviction of manslaughter after hearing the strengths and weaknesses of both sides made for/against the actual charges???
This seems like a Plea Bargain deal served from the bench!!
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