Originally Posted by Garywt (Post 2245942)

My doctor tells me to get the flu shot so I get the flu shot but he has me wait until November as he says it does no good to get it early. My doctor also told me to get the Covid shots and the first booster so I got them, no questions asked.

Originally Posted by La lamy (Post 2245952)

Not at all too early since it's based on last year's strain!

Originally Posted by Whitley (Post 2246046)

Is there a study that shows that 95% figure. I am confused as to how they can say1) the jab will prevent you from getting and spreading covid to 2) The jab prevents you from getting hospitalized. With the differing strains of covid, it seems like a hail Mary plan, let's throw it out there and see what happens, to say "Sure you still caught covid, but had you not gotten the jab and subsequent boosters you really would have gotten it worse. I seem to have had covid and did not even know it. Right away I hear, "well thank God you were jabbed or you could have gotten really ill". What proof it there of that. Are they comparing the new vewrsions of covid against the original hospitalization rates?

Originally Posted by Susan1717 (Post 2246063)

I have never gotten a flu vax and have not had the flu or a cold in at least 20 years. I passed on the covid vax as well. I did get the omicron strain but since early on, found a doctor to prescribe ivermectin. Never got that sick, only tired. Was fully recovered in 5 days. There’s no one fits all tho. I have had my antibodies recently tested again, and still have them.

Originally Posted by DonnaNi4os (Post 2246070)

Many people believe that they got the flu after getting the vaccine. Since the flu vaccine is not a live vaccine it is impossible for it to have caused the flu. That’s not my opinion, that is a fact. You may have been exposed to the flu prior to getting the vaccine and didn’t have any symptoms yet. In that case the flu vaccine didn’t have time to build your immunity to fight it off. But getting the flu from the vaccine is a myth. Only live vaccines can cause disease and the flu vaccine is NOT a live vaccine.

Originally Posted by Bill14564 (Post 2246075)

A lot of questions. The answers are out there if you care to find them.

Yes, there is a study. It was the report of the trial of the Pfizer vaccine.

The manufacturer did not say the jab will prevent you from getting or spreading covid. (but you already knew that since you quoted the post I used when someone else made the same assertion.)

I believe the manufacturer can say that the jab will keep some from being hospitalized because they performed trials with the vaccine that showed that to be the case. I believe they can continue to say that because tens of millions of people have taken the vaccine and hospitalizations and deaths have fallen dramatically.

What proof is there that it was the vaccine that kept one individual from getting more sick? In the case of a virus that is not 100% deadly there is absolutely no proof for that one individual. However, the vaccine trials enrolled more than one individual and if you read the report you will see how the conclusion was derived. Also, as I noted above, tens of millions have now received the vaccine and hospitalizations and deaths have dropped dramatically. Does that 100% prove the vaccine worked? No, but if the choice is between the vaccine, chemtrails, space aliens, or sunspots causing the drop, I'll put my money on the vaccine.

Look, we've had nearly three years of debate about the vaccine. I choose to believe the studies and the data and the real world observations. Others choose to believe the conspiracies and deny what to me seems obvious. It is unlikely that there are any arguments that have not been made and it is foolish to believe anyone is going to change their mind now.

Originally Posted by JMintzer (Post 2246379)

True...

I had covid 10 months before any vaccine was available. I had a cough, some chills and body aches and a low grade temp (99.7°) for 36 hrs... Then, I was tired for 2-3 days...

My wife caught it from me and was flat on her back, wiped out, for a week...

Originally Posted by gatorbill1 (Post 2246109)

You listened to the wrong people or wrong TV station - I listened to them all.

Originally Posted by SusanStCatherine (Post 2246142)

From the Snopes website:

"During an unscripted CNN town hall on July 21, Biden falsely stated that those who had been vaccinated would not get COVID, be hospitalized, or end up in an ICU and die."

There are video clips of this as well.

It's frustrating to have people generalize or support a "does not exist" statement. My university class in Logics taught me this.

I know this is off topic from original post, but wanted to show this did happen.

These days, skepticism with mainstream media and social media is warrantied. Seek the truth from multiple sources and good luck!

Originally Posted by John Mayes (Post 2246158)

And from where did you get your medical degree?

Originally Posted by mntlblok (Post 2246167)

Never understood using "virii" as a plural of "virus. Figured "viri" made some sense, but guess that would actually mean "men". Only just now got around to googling it. Not what I expected to find. Don't recall such a thing as a "neuter noun" - at least not one that ended in "us".

From What Is the Plural of Virus?.

It is common knowledge that the plurals of many words from Latin end in "-a" or "-i." Data, for instance, is the plural of datum and alumni is the plural of an alumnus. Is the plural of virus viri and if not, why?

Neuter and Masculine Nouns
​Latin neuters end in "-a" in the plural for the nominative and accusative cases:

Datum > data
Singular > plural
The plural of "virus" is "viruses" in English. Virus is a neuter noun in Latin. That means its plural, if there were an attested ancient usage of virus in the plural, would have ended in an "-a," because neuter nouns in (ancient Greek and) Latin end in an "-a" in the plural nominative and accusative cases. The example of the plural of datum is a case in point. Since datum is a neuter singular, its plural is data.

Since virus is neuter, vira is a possibility for the nominative/accusative plural. It could not be viri. Second declension masculine nouns end in "-i" in the nominative plural:

Alumnus > alumni
Singular > plural
Viri is the plural of the masculine second declension noun vir, which means "man." Vir is a masculine noun and the "-i" ending is appropriate for the plural nominative of masculine second declension nouns.

"Virus," by the way, can refer either an "infectious agent" or a computer program that "is usually disguised as an innocuous program or file," which inserts a copy of itself into another program "that when run usually performs a malicious action," Merriam-Webster notes.

Originally Posted by jimjamuser (Post 2246351)

The idea of falsified COVID coding was likely spread by some disinformation organizations such as the Russian troll farms. My opinion is that many people died (maybe millions) IN THE US because of disinformation like the magnified FEAR of the COVID shot. Also, historically, the US was slow to recognize the potentially deadly nature of the disease. Today, there still lingers a fear about ANY shot - even one like the flu shot, which has been proven, for years, to be effective.

Originally Posted by Bill14564 (Post 2246367)

Are you calling me names or saying I didn't read what I thought I read? (and it figures that wasn't one of the documents I saved)

Originally Posted by Bogie Shooter (Post 2246384)

Glad that’s all you experienced….others were not so lucky.

Originally Posted by golfing eagles (Post 2246310)

To quote Dr. McCoy to Mr. Spock in "Star Trek 4": "Don't agree with me, it makes me very nervous" :1rotfl::1rotfl::1rotfl: