[lkagele]

Originally Posted by golfing eagles

Absolutely, positively the most likely scenario. But time will tell. The naiver posters on these threads believe that if there is an "overcharge", that money is just sitting in a drawer (or somebody's pocket). They have no concept of operational expenses

My logic is at odds with yours. We're talking about $300M + in OVERCHARGES above what was properly reimbursed. So, TVH's revenue has a layer of income from proper reimbursements and a layer of income from improper billings.

Shouldn't the proper reimbursements have been sufficient to cover the company's operating expenses? If not, the business has obvious financial problems and I really don't think that's the case. Generating additional income from improper billings wouldn't increase the operational expenses substantially other than maybe hiring a couple more coders and accountants. Could be its expansion plans were unknowingly ramped up because of overall income and the money went there???

Admittedly, the QAnon in me is still curious to eventually see where that extra revenue went. The filings stated some went to a partner to pay down a line of credit. There might be some issues there if they determine it was an extra-ordinary or accelerated paydown and the timing coincides with the startup of the billing issues.

[Snowbirdtobe]

The Villages Health Bankruptcy is heating up. Today Sept 9 2025 I received 4 emails of changes in the case between 9AM and 11AM.
It's hard to follow all the little and important changes that were proposed. A word dropped here and a word inserted there but the paragraph below seem to have been removed from the proposed court order.

(e) At least eighty-five (85%) of all the Clinicians offered employment pursuant to Section 12.09(a) shall have accepted an offer of employment and delivered to the Buyer an executed Employment Agreement (such Clinicians, “Accepted Clinicians”)
(provided that Buyer may not delay the Closing based on a failure of the foregoing condition to be satisfied ifBuyer has failed to comply in any material respect with its obligations to make offers of employment to Clinicians under Section 12.09(a));


Does that mean the number of Clinicians is below 85% in the new business?

[golfing eagles]

Originally Posted by lkagele

My logic is at odds with yours. We're talking about $300M + in OVERCHARGES above what was properly reimbursed. So, TVH's revenue has a layer of income from proper reimbursements and a layer of income from improper billings.

Shouldn't the proper reimbursements have been sufficient to cover the company's operating expenses? If not, the business has obvious financial problems and I really don't think that's the case. Generating additional income from improper billings wouldn't increase the operational expenses substantially other than maybe hiring a couple more coders and accountants. Could be its expansion plans were unknowingly ramped up because of overall income and the money went there???

Admittedly, the QAnon in me is still curious to eventually see where that extra revenue went. The filings stated some went to a partner to pay down a line of credit. There might be some issues there if they determine it was an extra-ordinary or accelerated paydown and the timing coincides with the startup of the billing issues.

Unfortunately, your "logic" is flawed. They submitted what they believed was proper billing. They did not submit "proper billing + an overcharge". They received reimbursement for that billing, believing that was what they were due, spent whatever they spent, and had a net ZERO on the books at the end of the year. NO slush fund. NO money in a drawer. Now CMS comes along and states "we paid you too much" based on a difference of opinion in documentation guidelines. So now they're in bankruptcy court.

The problem would be, and while this is unlikely, a whole bunch of misinformed people have jumped on this bandwagon: If the billing was intentionally out of compliance, AND cash distributions were made to the shareholders, that would be fraud. But like I stated, highly unlikely

[Altavia]

Originally Posted by golfing eagles

Unfortunately, your "logic" is flawed. They submitted what they believed was proper billing. They did not submit "proper billing + an overcharge". They received reimbursement for that billing, believing that was what they were due, spent whatever they spent, and had a net ZERO on the books at the end of the year. NO slush fund. NO money in a drawer.

The problem would be, and while this is unlikely, a whole bunch of misinformed people have jumped on this bandwagon: If the billing was intentionally out of compliance, AND cash distributions were made to the shareholders, that would be fraud. But like I stated, highly unlikely

Seemingly triggered by auditors who had stong motivation to drive down the cost of the acquisition(?)