[bimmertl]

Originally Posted by retiredguy123

They ask so they can attach a lien on any UM payouts, and, sometimes, they are required to actually get approval to treat you if you have UM coverage. But, if you don't have UM coverage, your health insurance is required to pay for your treatment. Health insurance coverage has nothing to do with who was at fault. Why should they pay to treat a person who is 100 pounds overweight, eats at McDonald's every day, and smokes cigarettes?

They ask those questions to know if auto PIP applies or workers comp applies. Every auto policy issued in Florida is required to have 10K in first party med bills coverage (PIP). It's primary coverage ahead of Medicare and so is workers comp coverage.

Health care providers have no clue who is at fault in accident let alone if the at fault driver has any insurance. Heck, they don't even know if the patient has any health care insurance.

They need approval to treat a patient if he has UM coverage? You can't possibly believe that.

[retiredguy123]

Originally Posted by bimmertl

They ask those questions to know if auto PIP applies or workers comp applies. Every auto policy issued in Florida is required to have 10K in first party med bills coverage (PIP). It's primary coverage ahead of Medicare and so is workers comp coverage.

Health care providers have no clue who is at fault in accident let alone if the at fault driver has any insurance. Heck, they don't even know if the patient has any health care insurance.

They need approval to treat a patient if he has UM coverage? You can't possibly believe that.

Is it true that most UM claim payments are for medical bills that the injured person cannot afford because of unsufficient health insurance, and not for "pain and suffering" or long term care? I'm just curious because that data is not readily available.